Well he could also have been a Phonecian French guy tooooooo... but both of ya gots a good point.(nm)

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Posted by Short Round from proxy-551.public.rwc.webtv.net on August 18, 1999 at 08:29:10:

In Reply to: Re: an answer... posted by Mikal C Johnson (KtE Cym SOCAE) on August 18, 1999 at 06:40:36:


: For starters, this is not an Arthurian era knight. He's from the Crusades, a good 600 years later.
: Second, and this part I don't remember for sure, but wasn't he French?
: Whatever language he spoke at home in his youth, a Medieval knight of his standing would have to be fluent in Latin. It's hinted that Indy knows classical Latin. Ergo, they had a method of communication.

: : At the end of "Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade" when Indy meets the Grail warrior how would they have communicated? Shouldn't the warrior speak only in olde English? Even though he and Indy both essentially speak the same language, the difference between twentieth century American-English and the English spoken by a soldier of Arthurian times would be considerable. Indy, being a professor of archeology, would have little trouble understanding the old man but the old soldier should have been baffled by Indy's speech. Shouldn't Indy have been forced to change the way he speaks in order to communicate with the Grail warrior?




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